From the perspective of a revolutionary American colonist, I believe the British Monarchy started oppressing the colonists after the beginning of French and the Indian war. During the colonial times, four great nations of Europe namely England, Spain, France and Netherlands established their colonies in the America. However, the Spain and Netherlands colonies were sparsely located in the America. Also, they were mainly focused on converting the American natives to Catholics and searching for gold. As a result, they failed in developing economically healthy colonies. On the contrary, France and England made their colonies economically robust by successfully developing trade between themselves and the natives. Consequently, only the France and England were left for dominance in the America. Sooner England started enforcing various taxes to these colonies in order to …show more content…
A series of events between 1765 and 1775 which eventually led to the American Revolution. Townshend duties (1770) were one of those events which resulted in the boycott of British goods by colonies. Likewise, custom racketeering event (1768) was performed for the intentional detention of colonial ships and their goods, which led to widespread violence in Boston. To curb this violence, the British occupied Boston, which indirectly resulted in Boston Massacre of 1770. Another major event that pushed two sides to the war was the Boston Tea Party (1773). The British increased import duties on the tea to support the troubled East India Company, which resulted in Charleston, New York and Philadelphia rejecting the shipment of tea. However, Samuel Adams and other colonists boarded the ships in Boston harbor and threw away the trunks of tea into the sea (Hagist, 2013). In retaliation, the British passed various punitive coercive acts. In this way, a series of events and wars followed between British and the colonists, which ensued the Congress to adopt the Declaration of