Who does “everyone” refer to in this verse? Ben points that Paul does not mean every member has his own meal, since some of the have-nots are, going without. He probably means that those whom he is particularly addressing, the hosts and the wealthy in Corinth, have their own dinners. Barrett also points that the “Supper was not conducted rightly but all moderately supplied with food and drink. In fact, the rich were bringing but eating and drinking the extra supplies themselves. This was not to eat the Lord’s Supper, but their own”. From the context, I myself see that food was supplied anyway but the problem was the “how”.
v.22 “Do you have not houses?” Barrett points Paul’s concern that is contradicting the inference that the Corinthian Supper included an ordinary meal. This implies that Corinthian addressees should separate eating and drinking for ordinary purposes (e.g., to satisfy hunger [v.34]) from the common celebration of the Lord’s Supper. It is persuasive for me that the Lord Supper lacks its meaning and became feast of the rich people.
"Do you despise the church of God?" The party that the Corinthian believers had was destructive of the unity of God’s family. Here Paul is careful for the unity of the church. Paul also described it in
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The Lord’s Supper was an actual meal eaten by the community in a private home. Christians accustomed to experiencing the Lord’s Supper only as a ritual “in church,” removed from a meal setting, will need to discipline their imaginations to keep this original setting in mind. The close relationship between the meal and the Eucharist can be seen in the institution of the communion service. The Eucharist was instituted in the context of a meal, the Last Supper. The Eucharist followed the meal (Luke 22:20; I Cor.2:25), and the elements of the Eucharist came directly from the meal