To what extent is Macbeth an ‘Abhorred Tyrant’? Laren Ward
Shakespearean tragedy, Macbeth, is one aligned with ambition, vice, and guilt which explores the self-indulgence of ‘abhorred tyrant’ Macbeth, formerly regarded as one of greatest valour. Shakespeare exhibits an exploration of King James' national heritage in his native Scotland between the years 1040 to 1057, and also eminently, the effect of gender stereotypes during the Jacobean era. The Macbeths briefly triumph then disintegrate into abhorred villains when Macbeth’s hubris is heightened by three witches that deliver him an unimaginable prophecy. This prophecy offers them a chance to challenge the Great Chain of Being and rule everlastingly. As a result, Macbeth and his relentless
…show more content…
Occasionally, Lady Macbeth interrupts Macbeth’s lines, disrupting flow, displaying the instability of their relationship. This can be seen in Act I Scene VII, where there is a clear differentiation between the two characters' lines. Macbeth queries ‘if we should fail?’ (I.vii.58) to Lady Macbeth. She replies mockingly, ‘we fail?’ (I.vii.59) then continues to confirm ‘we’ll not fail’ (I.vii.61). Lady Macbeth tactically presents herself as dismissive to make Macbeth seem somewhat foolish for asking. This contrasts the idea that Macbeth is an ‘abhorred tyrant’ as it is shown that his wife is the more dominant one in the relationship. In the Jacobean Era, women were expected to be submissive to their husbands and be controlled by them. By contrasting this in Macbeth, he can be seen as adopting more of these feminine traits, in addition to this Lady Macbeth juxtaposes these ideals as well. It can be argued that Macbeth is merely a puppet of his own wife’s desires. Besides Macbeth’s “vaulting ambition”, he is ultimately undone by a fundamental misunderstanding of female biology. Macbeth displays naivety, through the ease of being manipulated by Lady Macbeth who is the epitome of evil. Therefore, to argue for Macbeth being an ‘abhorred tyrant’, he was oblivious and ignorant to …show more content…
Macbeth believed he’d ‘jump the life to come’ (I.vii.8) presenting his acknowledgment that if he were to pursue ‘the deed’, it would be so evil that he ‘will’ not enter heaven, with the high modality verb ‘will’ showing absolute certainty. Macbeth’s continuous concern when it comes to religion shows that the only thing keeping him from killing the king is diminished to just the consequence. Here, Macbeth is in conflict with his moral and immoral conscience. Consequently, Macbeth begins to acquiesce in his decision (I.vii) to execute ‘th’assissination’ when he queries the ‘consequences’ of ‘If we should fail?’ to his wife. The use of the interrogative displays Macbeth’s sudden peak of interest that entices Lady Macbeth to emasculate him so he can finalise his decision while he is most vulnerable. Moreover, we can interpret Macbeth’s caution, because the verb ‘fail’ relates to the numerous consequences he fears. Lady Macbeth tactically replies with ‘We fail?’, by which the use of the rhetoric mocks Macbeth in order to belittle his hubris, therefore making him appear weaker. This further proves that Lady Macbeth was the main cause of Macbeth’s