Many people debate the issue of whether Macbeth can be considered “criminally insane” in a court of law or not. In the tale of “Macbeth” by William Shakespeare, the ideal warrior’s descent into darkness and corruption presents a compelling case for him being considered "criminally insane" in a court of law. Macbeth and Lady Macbeth plot to kill King Duncan for Macbeth to be king after the witches propose to Macbeth a prophecy that took over his mind. Macbeth is in control of his actions. As Macbeth still commits crimes and raises his body count, Macbeth increasingly becomes paranoid. Macbeth's actions are still calculated and planned to secure his spot as king and demonstrate a conscious ability to make decisive actions. Throughout the play, …show more content…
One reason that Macbeth can be considered “criminally insane” is by his complete abandonment of any moral reasoning or restraint. As seen in Act 1, Scene 7, we see Macbeth struggle While Macbeth's descent into paranoia could be viewed as a kind of madness, however throughout the play Macbeth clearly demonstrates an understanding of his actions and the consequences such as planning on killing King Duncan in act 1. Macbeth maliciously plans and executes his crimes even after killing the King and hiring murderers to satisfy his ambition for power as he states, “He's here in double trust: First, as I am his kinsman and his subject, Strong both against the deed; then, as his host, Who should against his murderer shut the door, Not bear the knife myself.”(1.7). Macbeth recognizes his wrongful intent but still weighs this feeling over his own ambition as he states, “I have no spur, To prick the sides of my intent, but only Vaulting ambition, which o'erleaps itself And falls on the other."(1.7). This shows us Macbeth acknowledging his ambition to become the King, being fully aware of the