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Macbeth To Gain The Favor Of King James I

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Was Macbeth Written In Order to Gain the Favor of King James I? It wasn't until the 16th century, when England began to undergo dramatic changes, shifting old medieval superstitions to new humanistic Renaissance ideals, that new notions - such as Protestantism, advancements in science, and emphasis on artistic explorations flourished (Mabillard). As the daughter of Henry the VIII who was raised and educated in the midst of all these changes, Queen Elizabeth became the main instigator of the 16th-century progress (Mabillard). History books often remember her as a great patron of the arts, particularly Shakespeare plays which she often went to see (Mabillard). Her support for Shakespeare made him so popular that he continued to put on productions …show more content…

“The spacious times of great Elizabeth were over” (Mabillard). Queen Elizabeth passed away on March 24th, 1603. After, Elizabeth’s death, King James the VI of Scotland succeeded the throne making him King James I of England (Kennedy). One of James’ first acts was to ensure that the arts (especially the dramas) were being recognized (Mabillard). Like Queen Elizabeth, James had a special love for the drama. He too, like the Queen, stood against the Puritans who believed the theatre was the sinful work of Satan. In the first year of James’ reign, he traveled a great deal to watch performances, many of which included Shakespeare (Mabillard). The King first noticed Shakespeare in the midst of traveling and became “aquatinted with him in Scotland” (Mabillard). King James wrote a letter which is recognized by the name of “Amicable Letter” (Mabillard). The letter was for Shakespeare and it includes the King’s “desire to see a play written by him upon the subject of Macbeth” (Mabillard). It can be inferred that Shakespeare wrote Macbeth “upon receipt of the letter” (Mabillard). In 1604, “the new monarch was a descendant of Banquo”; Shakespeare “kept this in his mind’s eye”

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