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Who Is To Blame For Macbeth's Downfall

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Macbeth is the vehicle that drives the play, Macbeth. Macbeth transformed from the Great Thane of Cawdor and Glamis to not only a murderer of hundreds of innocent people but himself as well. He let himself be persuaded by both Lady Macbeth and the witches, causing him to murder two of his closest friends. Thus, for choosing to murder hundreds of people and allowing himself to be persuaded, Macbeth is to blame for the downfall of the Macbeth’s and the tragic outcome of the play. Most importantly, in the end of it all, Macbeth chose to kill King Duncan, Banquo, and the Macduffs. In the play, Macbeth states that, “If it were done when ’tis done, then ’twere well It were done quickly: if the assassination could trammel up the consequence, and …show more content…

Macbeth states, “Know Banquo was your enemy… so he is mine; and in such bloody distance that every minute of his being thrusts against my near’st of life: and though I could with bare-fac’d power sweep him from my sight And bid my will avouch it, yet I must not, For certain friends that are both his and mine, Whose loves I may not drop, but wail his fall Who I myself struck down. And thence it is, That I to your assistance do make love, Masking the business from the common eye For sundry weighty reasons.” (III:I:114-124). Macbeth confesses to hired murderers that Banquo is his enemy and that he himself cannot kill Banquo for he had too much of a connection to him and their concordant friends, but even in saying this, he still desires that the murderers kill Banquo, adding to his new list of murdered friends. This causes Lady Macbeth to become insane as she recalls the past and realizes that she no longer can persuade Macbeth and that she also played a part in killing King Duncan causing her husband to not care for her anymore. Lady Macbeth is mainly going insane and kills herself for the fact that she knows that the blood is also on her hands for killing King Duncan, however, if Macbeth had backed out of the murder the negative consequences wouldn’t have occurred for the both of …show more content…

For being such a strong and powerful man already, one would think that Macbeth could handle the persuasions from his wife and the illusions told to him by the witches, however, Macbeth proved this not to be the case. Macbeth's intense infatuation with Lady Macbeth caused him to not comprehend the tasks in which he was pursuing. Lady Macbeth persuades him by questioning his manliness, “When you durst do it,” she says, “then you were a man” (I.VII.49), however, Macbeth should not consider killing someone because of his own insecurity. He should be able to understand how the two should not correlate, yet he listens to Lady Macbeth and takes everything she says to heart. This is similar to his persuasions from the witches. Because the witches had only seemed to be auspicious by their elusive prophecies, they were covering the fact that they were actually persuading Macbeth to become king. “All hail, Macbeth, thou shalt be king hereafter!” (I:III:53). Macbeth didn’t have to assume their prophecies were true, nor did he have to kill someone to become king. The witches stated that he would become king, they didn’t tell him to murder King Duncan, or Banquo, or the Macduffs. In the end, Macbeth let himself believe that those were the intentions of the witches. Thus, by Macbeth murdering King Duncan, Banquo, and the Macduffs, he had become a tyrant that Scotland couldn’t bear

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