Fire Inspector 2 - Exam 2
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School
Columbia Southern University**We aren't endorsed by this school
Course
LDR 1
Subject
Mechanical Engineering
Date
Jan 1, 2025
Pages
11
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PHASE TI, EXAMINATION II-2 59 Examination II-2 Directions Szmove Examination 11-2 from the manual. First, take a careful look at the examination. There should be 75 examination items. Notice that a blank line precedes each examination #=m number. This line is provided for you to enter the answer to the examination item. Write the answer in ink. Remember the rule about not changing your answers. Our sesearch shows that changed answers are most often changed to an incorrect answer, and, =ore often than not, the answer that is chosen first is correct. If you guess an answer, place an “X” or a check mark by your answer. This step s vitally important to gain and master knowledge. We will explain how we treat the “zuessed” items later in SAEP. Take the examination. Once you complete it, go to Appendix B and score your examination. After the examination is scored, carefully follow the directions for feedback of the missed and guessed examination items. 1. The nature of code enforcement is complex, and inspectors often need help from: A. fire protection engineers. B. judges. C. fire fighters. D. claims adjusters. 2. In preparation for court, fire inspectors should gather all pertinent information, including: A. inspector’s certificates. B. inspection notes. C. comparable inspections. D. inspector time sheets. 3. The first step in the permit process is the: A. fire inspector conducting an inspection for the permit. B. occupant contacting the fire inspector. C. inspection department receiving a complaint. D. fire inspector issuing a permit over the phone. 4. A permit is issued for: A. an unlimited time frame. B. the period of time requested by the occupant. C. a specific time based on the reason for the permit. D. one week only. 5. Part of the permit process includes completing an application and providing documentation. This documentation includes which of the following? A. The aspect B. A pipe schedule system C. MSDS or other chemical documentation D. A preplan
60 EXAM PREP: FIRE INSPECTOR I & II 6. 9. 10. n 12. The process of examining drawings and specifications to determine the safety characteristics refers to: A. inspections. B. citations C. plans review D. occupancy. . When reviewing architectural plans, which one of the items below would you expect to see in working drawings? A. Elevated view B. Divisional view C. Lateral view D. Panoramic view . When investigating a complaint, the fire inspector: A. is not required to give the owner advance notice. B. should call the owner and set an appointment. C. should be accompanied by the complainant. D. should be accompanied by the chief. When investigating a complaint, the fire inspector should collect information to: A. provide evidence to the complainant that an inspection was made. B. document for future inspections. C. help provide evidence to condemn the building. D. justify the inspection. When investigating a complaint, the fire inspector: A. is not required to give the owner advance notice. B. should call the owner and set an appointment. C. should be accompanied by the complainant. D. should be accompanied by the chief. A/(n) should be in written form and include statistical data on the business, dates, times, phone numbers, violations, recommendations for corrections, and follow-up inspection date. A. inspection report B. code requirement C. enforcement procedure D. permit application Which of the following should be included on the inspection form? A. History of occupancy classifications B. Date and time of the previous inspection C. The owner’s reaction to the inspection D. The name of the business and the address of the building being inspected
13. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. PHASE II, EXAMINATION II-2 What should an inspector do upon discovering a code violation that is not listed on the inspection form? A. Ignore the violation because it is not on the inspection form. B. Document the violation on the form being used. C. Make a mental note to add the code violation to the form the next time the form is updated. D. Bring the violation to the owner's attention and give a verbal warning. . Any person who performs fire inspections must have a thorough knowledge of which of the following? A. Alternative building materials to meet the intent of the code. B. Alternative fire protection systems to meet the intent of the code. C. The codes and standards that establish a fire inspector’s duties and responsibilities. D. The power to mandate compliance. Occupant load is the: A. total number of persons that may safely occupy a building or portion thereof at any one time. B. total number of persons that may exit a building. C. total number of persons that may exit areas of concentrated use. D. average number of persons that may exit a building or portion thereof at any one time. The first step in determining the occupant load of a room or area is to: A. determine the number of exits that are necessary. B. multiply the length times the width of the room or area to obtain the square footage. C. divide the square footage of the room or area by the area per person factor. D. determine the numerical factor that should be used for a level egress in the occupancy’s classification. To compute the total exit capacity for level egress, it is necessary to first determine the: A. height of area. B. total capacity of all exits. C. occupant load of the largest room. D. capacity of hallways. Fire inspectors canuse the _____ given in the codes to determine the occupant load of a building or certain part of a building. A. construction classification B. occupant density C. area limitations D. occupant load factors Multiple-use occupancies usually require inspection personnel to determine which parts of the facility fall under a particular occupancy: A. classification. B. group. C. use. D. standard. 61
62 EXAM PREP: FIRE INSPECTOR I & II Y 20. The NFPA describes locations where lodging, boarding and personal care are provided for residents who are unrelated to the owner or operator as residential board and care occupancies. A. less than four B. non-ambulatory C. four or more D. ambulatory 21. Health care occupancies are facilities that provide health or medical service to individuals who cannot evacuate themselves during an emergency without assistance from staff or emergency responders. A. 121024 B. detained C. elderly bedridden ‘ D. four or more 22.How a building is designed is referred toasits ___ type. ] A. hazard B. zoning C. construction : D. fire code i 23. The type of exit enclosure providing the highest degree of protection of stair ] enclosures is a: i A. rated exit door enclosure. B. continuous exit enclosure. C. smoke proof enclosure. D. horizontal exit enclosure. 24. A protected stairway enclosure in a three story building must be enclosed from its highest point to its lowest point by a minimum -hour fire rating. A. one B. two C. three D. four 25. Concrete and masonry are excellent building components because of the fire resistance of the materials. A. mandated B. required C. inherent D. structural 26. Which of the following is true regarding ceilings as a distinct building component? A. They play an important structural role. B. They are part of a fire rated assembly. C. They usually do not play a structural role. D. They must be properly fire stopped.
PHASE II, EXAMINATION II-2 63 27.1n a means of egress, the protection of stairwells from _____is extremely important. A. excessive heat B. products of combustion C. combustible storage D. fire 28. dampers in ductwork protect penetrations in fire-rated assemblies and are usually activated in conjunction with smoke or fire alarm systems. A. Smoke B. Fire C. Ionization D. Exhaust __ 29.A rated fire door is identified: A. with wired glass in a metal frame. B. with a label. C. with a pictorial symbol. D. by the logo of the manufacturer. 30. Within a fire protection system, an electronic circuit that monitors readiness and transmits a signal when there is a problem is a: A. microwave signal. B. mechanical signal. C. voltage signal. D. trouble signal. 31. Dry chemical fire extinguishing systems are most commonly used to protect: A. flammable liquid storage rooms. B. combustible metal operations. C. delicate electronic equipment. D. paper storage. 32. Which of the following is part of a rated fire door assembly? A. Lintel B. Sash(es) . C. Latching hardware D. Exit signage 33. Standard fire doors include which of the following types? A. Demizing stationary B. Frangible folding C. Cverhead rolling D. Automatic opening 34, Which of the following temperature ratings would require the installation of a blue sprinkler head? A. 135 to 170°F B. 175 to 225°F C. 250 to 300°F 2 D. 325 to 375°F
64 EXAM PREP: FIRE INSPECTOR I & II 35. Which of the following is a primary water supply source for an automatic sprinkler system? A. Public water-supply system B. Collapsible tank C. Dry hydrant D. Fire engine 36. Which of the following temperature ratings would require the installation of a white sprinkler head? A. 135 to 170°F B. 175 to 225°F C. 325 to 375°F D. 500 to 575°F 37. The NFPA standard which requires that fire extinguishers be thoroughly inspected is: A. NFPA 25. B. NFPA 14. C. NFPA 13. D. NFPA 10. 38. Sprinkler systems shall be inspected, tested, and maintained in accordance with: A. NFPA 10. B. NFPA 13. C. NFPA 25. D. NFPA 14. ___39. Exit stairwell pressurization is a method of: A. signal notification. B. fire alarm systems. C. fire control. D. smoke control. 40. Which of the following sprinkler system components is considered a main water control valve? A. OS&Y valve B. Check valve C. Alarm-test valve D. Globe valve 41. Most automatic sprinkler systems are designed on the premise that a fire will be controlled by the operation of: A. five or fewer heads. B. a minimum of ten sprinkler heads. C. one sprinkler head. D. every head in the fire floor.
PHASE II, EXAMINATION II-2 65 42.The control valve for a sprinkler system may be located at the system or outside the building. This valve should always be a(n): A. quick acting valve. B. indicating-type valve. C. non-indicating type valve. D. quarter-turn valve. 43. Which of the following could be used as a control valve for an automatic sprinkler system? A. Post-indicator valve B. Drain valve C. Alarm tests valve D. Quarter turn valve 44.A/(n) detector is one which responds to quick changes in temperature. A. disk-thermostat B. bimetallic C. ionization D. rate-of-rise 45. A water distribution system that serves a single property or specified area is a: A. closed system. B. public system. C. private system. D. hydrant system. 46. Water treatment plantsuse ________ systems to remove algae, fungi, . viruses, bacteria, chemicals and minerals from the water. ] A. ionization B. filtration C. homogenization D. network electrolysis 47.A consists of a network of pipes, storage tanks, control valves and hydrants. A. grid system B. distribution system C. processing facility D. public water supply system 48. A control valve that uses a flat circular plate in pipes, that rotates 90 degrees across the cross section of the pipe to control the flow of water is a: A. gate valve. B. stop valve. C. butterfly valve. D. valve key.
EXAM PREP: FIRE INSPECTOR I & II 49. The number of hydrants and the spacing between hydrants is determined by the: A. fire load index for the target hazard being protected. B. fire flow requirements for the type of occupancies being protected. C. needs of the risk management study for property value being protected. D. closest fire station for the area being protected. 50. water supply distribution systems are most commonly found on large commercial, industrial, or institutional properties. A. Municipal B. Private C. Public D. Combination 51.A for testing hydrant flow is one piece of equipment that is necessary to accurately test fire hydrants. A. gate valve B. flow meter C. graphing calculator D. pressure gauge 52. Which of the following is the correct mathematical formula (customary system) for determining fire flow? A. gallons per minute (gpm) = (14.7) x Cq x d2 x /P B. gallons per minute (gpm) = (29.83) x Cq x d2 x /P C. gallons per minute (gpm) = (29.83) x Cy x d? x delta P D. gallons per minute (gpm) = (28.93) x Cy x d2 x VP 53. Common Halon replacement systems include which the following: A. FM-500 B. Halotron C. FE-25 D. Metel-x 54. A projected beam smoke detector is useful in: A. churches. B. below grade areas. C. air ducts. D. commercial kitchens. 55. Which NFPA Standard regulates the installation of fixed/stationary fire pumps? A. NFPA 10 B. NFPA 13 C. NFPA 20 D. NFPA 25 56. Which NFPA Standard regulates the installation of standpipe systems? A. NFPA 10 B. NFPA 13 C. NFPA 14 D. NFPA 24
PHASE II, EXAMINATION II-2 67 S7.NFPA___ sets forth requirements for all dry chemical extinguishing systems. | A. 13 B. 24 C. 17 D. 10 | 58. Portable fire extinguishers generallyuse ___ types of fire extinguishing agents as fixed chemical extinguishing systems. A. the same B. several different C. three specific D. NFPA recommended 59. A test method that uses water under pressure to check the integrity of pressure vessels is a: A. saponification test. B. hydrostatic test. C. UL 300 test. D. Underwriters’ Laboratory test. 60.___ s the generation of a soapy foam that reacts with fats, which generates steam, smothers the fire, and prevents re-ignition. | A. Laminar blanketing | B. Total foam flooding | C. Saponification D. Stratification 61. Which of the following are part of a means of egress? A. Corridor, stairs, aisles B. Overhead door, non-rated corridor, alley C. Through kitchen, corridor, street D. Through mechanical room, fenced in yard, street 62. When panic hardware is required, occupants should be able to open the door by applying a force of not more than pounds. A5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 63. When two or more exits from an occupancy are required, they shall be located: A. remotely from each other. B. remotely as long as travel distance is not too long. C. remotely as to provide same travel distance for 80 percent of the occupants. D. an equal distance from all occupants.
68 EXAM PREP: FIRE INSPECTOR I & II 64. The rating required for a fire door in an exit stairway is determined by which of the following? A. Travel distance B. Lintel C. Door assembly D. Occupant load 65.A(n) ____ provides a means of egress from one building to an area of refuge in another building on approximately the same level. A. exit passageway B. horizontal exit C. smoke proof enclosure D. fire door ____66.1In a new mercantile occupancy, which of the following is allowed as part of a means of egress component? A. Elevators B. Ramps C. Escalators D. Moving walkways 67. Oily rags or cloths that have been contaminated with vegetable oils and disposed of improperly may ignite: A. through spontaneous combustion. B. through anaerobic combustion. C. from combustible vapors. D. from spontaneous vaporization. 68. The model codes reference the information in NFPA for Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code. A. 30 B. 10 C. 170 D. 701 69. A key element of an emergency plan, common to all types of occupancies is: A. an approved inspector’s report. B. the need to evacuate the structure in a timely and efficient manner. C. notifying the fire department of any emergency. D. making sure all areas of the building are secured. 70. One of the major problems associated with transferring a flammable or toxic gas from one container to another is: A. degrading of the container. B. the release of the gas into the atmosphere. C. an improperly marked container. D. solubility.
PHASE II, EXAMINATION II-2 71. Which hazard is associated with the handling and use of flammable and combustible liquids? A. Ventilation B. Static electricity C. Closed containers D. Bonding containers 72. The maximum allowable size for approved safety cans for flammable or combustible liquids is gallon(s). 73. The best source of information on a specific hazardous material from the manufacturer is the: A. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS). B. Coast Guard Hazard Response Information System Manual (CHRIS Manual). C. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms (ATF). D. American Association of Rail Roads (AARR). 74. An identification system that can be implemented in an area where hazardous materials are regularly stored and used is the: A. United Nations numbering system. B. North American Emergency Response Guide. C. NFPA 704 system. D. Material Safety Data Sheets. 75. Which of the following contributes to interior flame spread? A. Interior finish B. Entry of the compartment fire into the decay C. Compartmentalization of the interior spaces D. Oxygen consumption Did you score higher than 80 percent on Examination 11-2? Circle Yes or No in ink. (We will return to your answer to this question later in SAEP.) Now that you have finished the feedback step for Examination I1-2, it is time to repeat e process by taking another comprehensive examination for NFPA Standard 1031 Level II Section. 69