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According To Aristotle, Rhetoric Is Not Persuasion

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1. According to Aristotle, rhetoric is NOT persuasion. It is_________. (Put in your own words!) Rhetoric is the way in which someone uses to persuade a group of people. This includes what techniques are used, whether it be linguistically, physically, emotionally or nonverbally. Simply put in Aristotlean terms it is examining and determining what ethos, logos and pathos would best be used to persuade a particular audience in a particular time and situation. This means of course that rhetoric is not something that is constant, but something that is extremely fluid as it is bound to change for each individual case or circumstance. 2. What did the Yale study group want to do, and in what setting did they try to do it? The study group had wanted to see if peoples ' attitudes changed if they were exposed to external stimuli encouraging the reinforcement for change. They wanted to do so in a controlled laboratory environment. 3. “Experimental social psychology offered the possibility that the questions of traditional rhetoric might be solved within the framework of controlled experiments” (p.190). What does that MEAN? This means that using experiments to affect, measure or observe what really …show more content…

It is reaching the audience in a way so that they resonate with your side of the argument by bringing up valid points, having fluidity and consistency in your presentation/topic of interest and compiling current and accurate data/statistics. 7. What were Hovland and the Yale studies group originally trying to determine when they began? In the beginning they were studying how affect propaganda films were during wars. The goal was to figure out the laws of persuaion. 8. The Larson quote in the first paragraph on p.193 refers to the possibility for social influence “through the new media.” What new media is this referring to? What ‘new media’ might apply to this statement if it were made

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