The repsonse of both the Ottoman Empire and Japan were comparable, in essence they both adopted imperalistic ambitions to contain the encroachment of European and American state(s) into their spheres of influence in the Indian and Pacific Ocean. The west’s encounters with these polities facilitated the west to become increasingly interested in the commercial opportunities of the various aforementioned regions in order to promote foreign trade and obtain a strategic positioning in their foreign affairs. The response of both polities was one that blatanly disavowed European imperalism as a method of development and pursed counter-measures to contain further encroachment by performing similar warfare strategies to limit European influence in the Indian Ocean and the Pacific. Ultimately the acquistion of territory by European states demonstrated that warfare at sea is essentially a contest about maritime lines of communication. Moreover, I argue that the Ottoman reponse to the Portuguese …show more content…
Andrew C. Hess in his article The Ottoman Conquest of Egypt (1517) and the Beginning of the Sixteenth-Century World War states, “The conquest of Syria, Egypt, and Arabia not only catapulted the Ottomans into a position of leadership within the vast Muslim community, but it also gave the Istanbul regime resources sufficient to project its power north to the Gate of Vienna and west to The Strait of Gibraltar (Hess).” Moreover, The acquisition of Egypt and the Levant jump-started the tense relationship between the Ottomans and Portuguese in the Indian Ocean because it constricted the Portuguese royal monopoly on spice trade in the 16th century, specifically from the Red Sea and Persian