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Hamlet And Ophelia's Madness

651 Words3 Pages

In the book, Hamlet, William Shakespeare places a significant emphasis on the theme of madness. From a medical literary theory, madness equates to insanity or exhibiting abnormal mental patterns. In the 16th century, psychology was starting to progress, but it was still primitive for the time. There was not a classification system to define specific disorders; this meant various, unusual behaviors or even outer-societal beliefs were all deemed insane. However, despite the fact that William Shakespeare followed Catholicism, he never attributed the madness of the characters in Hamlet to supernatural beings or previous eccentric tendencies. The madness in Hamlet and Ophelia can be traced to the death of their fathers. However, Ophelia’s madness comes from a genuine shift in behavior while Hamlet’s madness is a deliberate motive to seek revenge. Ophelia’s madness is a result of several depressing events …show more content…

In Act 1 Scene 5, Hamlet informs Horatio that he will “put an antic disposition on” (1.5.172-173). From the reader response literary theory, there is not a direct reason for Hamlet to fake being crazy as he seeks revenge. It may be a chance that Hamlet is channeling his inner eccentricity and projecting it onto the surface as an exaggerated fit. This fit is exemplified in his interaction with Ophelia, a stark contrast from his attitude in his first appearance, as his head was “waving up and down”, “his arm was shaking”, and dramatically “sighing” (2.1.104-106). Despite this, Hamlet appears to be comprehensible about his actions and they serve a purpose. When Gertrude questions how Hamlet is talking to the ghost, he reaffirms that he is not mad as he can “reword” the subject, “which madness would gambol from” (3.4.164-165). As a result, the severity of Hamlet’s madness may be fueled by his suffering, but there is an underlying willingness on his own part to instill a chaotic atmosphere among his

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