The categorical imperative of Kant may be applied to modern day morality but not entirely. The imperative put forth by Kant follows the fundamentals of absolutes, which in many cases are true. However, when standing alone the categorical imperative does not cover all aspects of the spectrum and therefore would not be applicable in form alone. The primary reason for which Kant’s imperative fails would be or can be directly caused by variant situations. For example, what if there were to be a situation that on either hand the action would be deemed immoral, which would be chosen? The lesser of two immoral acts? How can you determine the equivalency of each crime with the categorical imperative? According to Thirtieth, “Kant never tells us how