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Aristotle Vs Aquinas

630 Words3 Pages

Thomas Aquinas, and Aristotle have somewhat analogous aspects on the concept of virtue, however, while one uses faith, the other uses reason to call for the need of temperance.According to Aquinas virtue is merely the good use of free will (655). This is a common view for those in the practice of Christianity, where many believe that God gives everyone free will and it is up to the individual to put it to good use. Nevertheless, in his work he explains that there are multiple factors that contribute to putting free will to actual good use, and the most prevalent is self-control. Self-control implies discipline, and discipline can ultimately become the deciding factor in the creation of a habit, specifically an operative habit; which Aquinas defines as human virtue (656). …show more content…

This control prevents any inhibitions in spreading what is known as the “good news” in Christianity, and to have wisdom about this news is the ultimate form of virtue to Aquinas. Wisdom is concerned with all things, and considers the highest cause (673), and to Christianity wisdom is to know of God, not the wisdom of the earth. This is because according Paul, the author of the book of Chortianas (Swindoll) in the Bible, God will “will destroy the wisdom of the wise” and thwart “the discernment of the discerning”. This belief in God leads to the belief in the afterlife, where those who may have suffered on earth will be rewarded with heaven. This faith is considered a theological virtue, and it creates a sense of beatitude. This is the end goal for Aquinas and the divine happiness that stems from knowing there is the reward of heaven in the future, is Aquinas’ definition of

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