To what extent is it accurate to label the governance system of British Imperialism in the 19th and 20th century 'indirect '?
Colonialism started during the Age of discovery with the exploration of new land. Europeans saw in this, opportunities for new land, the spread of religion and civilization or colonized for need; mainly economical reasons. In fact, the British Empire, according to the essay In the Balance: Themes in Global History, alone formed a quarter of the world’s land mass and people. Europe itself had more than 80 percent of the globe by 1914. First, settler colonization was used by Europeans, which consisted of the transportation of the country’s institutions into the colonies, breaking pre-colonial arrangements according to
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Even though the Dutch and the Portuguese first saw it as a great trading post, the French and the British saw this as an opportunity to expand their land and a great economic opportunity with the trade of raw materials and new consumers. By 1767, after the French were defeated, the British begun to colonize all of India through direct and indirect colonialism. The East India Company controlled the country since 1600. As it gradually extended their power it had no choice but to make deals with local princes in areas to make trade profitable. These concessions are a great example for indirect rule. In the 1890, there were fewer than one thousand British administrators to control over three hundred million Indians. The majority of British troops were in fact Indians under the control of British officers. Because of the few number of British officers, they mainly relied on the governments already present in India but exerting control over their leaders according to The Nineteenth Century book by Michael Pollard. Indirect rule was mainly present in India due to the presence of princes who controlled one-third the