How Was World War 2 Justified

812 Words4 Pages

Making World War II Justified How would you feel if you and a friend had a money bet, shook hands and sealed the deal, but when it came time to pay up they didn’t? This is what Adolf Hitler, Germany’s dictator did to Britain, France, and the other Allies when he violated the Treaty of Versailles. World War II was justified because Britain and France were trying to bully and control Germany after World War I, Adolf Hitler went against the Munich agreement, and Hitler went against the Treaty of Versailles.
First, World War II was justified for Germany because Britain and France tried to bully Germany into paying for the many damages World War I had caused. From an article it quotes that, “The terms of the treaty required that Germany pay financial reparations, disarm, lose territory, and give up all of its overseas colonies”(Drexler 1). This proves that it was justified for Germany because their country was not to blame for all of World War I. It also put them at risk of attack from other countries since they had no standing army. Also, from a map of Germany before and after World War I, it …show more content…

The Munich Agreement was signed by Germany, Italy, Great Britain, and France. It was an appeasement agreement for Germany trying to keep them from taking land or invading Czechoslovakia. However, Hitler did not obey this. An article says, “(H)e violated the Munich Agreement by occupying the rest of Czechoslovakia”(IMW 1). This makes World War II justified for the Allies as well since Hitler went against the Munich Agreement. Also, Adolf Hitler and Germany invaded Poland just six months later. From the same source, “Six months later, in September 1939, Germany invaded Poland and Britain was at war”(IMW 1). This makes it even more justified for the Allies since Germany invaded and took over Poland when they signed a treaty saying they would refrain. World War II was justified because Hitler went against the Munich