A 22 year old female presents to family practice while on break from college complaining of insomnia. She wakes up at 3 AM each night and cannot fall back to sleep. She is a theater major and has lost interest in participating in any of the school's performances. She says she feels "miserable" and has begged her parents to allow her to take time off from school. Lately, she often thinks about driving her car off the bridge on the way to her parent's house. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? A: Administer depression screening test (PHQ-9) • Although there is a concern for depression this is not the next step in the management of a patient with suicidal ideation. This depression screening test is an effective way to help diagnose a person with depression as it is an 88% …show more content…
This patient has a plan that would kill herself. Admitting the patient to the hospital for inpatient care would immediately reduce the risk of self harm. From here a plan can be initiated to deal with the patient’s underlying psychiatric disorder. C: Call the health center at the college D: Prescribe SSRI E: Speak with the patient's parents Which of the following pharmacologic treatments would be first line for a patient with reactive arthritis felt to be caused by food poisoning with campylobacter? A: Acetaminophen B: Ciprofloxacin • This is the first line agent for campylobacter gastroenteritis and is usually administered for 3 days or until signs of the disease have improved. However, this is not the agent that is used to treat reactive arthritis that is caused by this bacteria. C: Metronidazole D: Naprosyn • This is the correct answer because an NSAID is the first line treatment of Reactive arthritis. In this case we are treating the reactive arthritis and not the infection that is likely etiology. E: