First of all, given that both Marx and Smith are renowned for their unique thoughts regarding the principals of economics, it seems prudent to begin with an analyzation of the economic consequences that would transpire in the Marxian and Smithian empires. During the mid-twentieth century, Marx became dismayed over the class conflicts that occurred between the proletariat and the bourgeoisie as a result of the current economic structure. He argued that “…the ruthless, exploitative capitalist system accounted for class oppression” (Drogin 87). With this in mind, it is clear that his empire would be constructed on the basis of prevention for further class oppression with the hope that all would be considered equal. In an empire run according to …show more content…
With legislation like the XXX and the XX, workers today do not face the same oppression and do not encounter the same degree of inequality that may have once been. Though I admire Marx’s vehement argument to combat the evils of capitalism, communist and socialist principals have no place in an empire conceived in the twenty-first century and built upon a foundation of twenty-first century standards. When Marx wrote his Communist Manifesto, there is no doubt that oppression and class struggle was the unfortunate, grim reality of the times. These problems, like the “XXX”, were addressed and any blatant flaws in the system were remedied. Naturally, inequality still exists today, but at the risk of sounding brutish, I would argue that inequality is necessary to promote the wellbeing of a nation. Marx wrote in his Communist Manifesto that “It has been objected, that upon the abolition of private property all work will cease, and universal laziness will overtake us”. He seemed to admonish this statement, but I would argue that this very claim would surely become a reality in a communist